Question

x par pawar 0 rahane par man1 hota lekin kiu​

Answer 1

Step-by-step explanation:

It happens because of the following rules:

We know that Dividing a number by same number gives us 1.

For example:

$\frac{x}{x} = 1.....(1) \\ applying \: law \: of \: indices \: we \: have \: \\ \frac{x}{x} = \frac{ {x}^{1} }{ {x}^{1} } = {x}^{1 - 1} = x ^{0} \\ \implies \: \frac{x}{x} = x ^{0} \: \\ but \: from \: equation \: (1)\\ \: \frac{x}{x} = 1 \\ \therefore \: x ^{0} \: = 1$