Math, asked by abhishek316, 1 year ago

0-0=2 how answer came 2

Answers

Answered by Swarup1998
18
Hey, your answer is given below.

Firstly, 0 - 0 = 2 is never possible other than doing some errors!

Here, it is!

Let, a = 1

⇒ a × a = 1 × a, multiplying both sides by a

⇒ a² = a

⇒ a² - 1 = a - 1, subtracting 1 from both sides

⇒ (a + 1) (a - 1) = (a - 1)

⇒ a + 1 = 1, multiplying both sides by inverse of (a - 1)

⇒ a + 1 = 1

⇒ a + 1 - 1 = 1 - 1, subtracting 1 from both sides

⇒ a = 0

⇒ 1 = 0, since a = 1

Now, 0 - 0

= 1 - 1

= 1² - 1²

= (1 + 1) (1 - 1)

= 2 × 0, since 1 - 1 = 0

= 2 × 1, since 1 = 0 as proved earlier

= 2

Hence, 0 - 0 = 2 [Proved]

It is not possible! Though 0/0 is indeterminate form, we have taken that as defined to solve the problem.

Hope it helps you!

Steph0303: :v: Grt answer
Swarup1998: ((:
Anonymous: Super bro
Swarup1998: Thank you, sis! ((:
Anonymous: Mmm☺
Answered by HappiestWriter012
9
hey there!
We know that ,
0 = 0

Now,
0² - 0² = 0
( 0 + 0 ) ( 0 - 0 ) = 2 ( 0 )
( 0 + 0 ) ( 0 - 0 ) = 2(0 + 0 )
( 0 - 0 ) = 2 .

This is not a actually true, but we will prove it somehow. Here, ( 0 - 0 ) / ( 0 - 0) = not defined, But here we cancelled them.

Hope helped!

Steph0303: Grt answer :v:
Swarup1998: Nice one! ((:
Similar questions