Question

1+1=1 is it possible ?give examples​

Answer 1

Answer:

Let a = 1 and b = 1.

Therefore a = b, by substitution.

If two numbers are equal, then their squares are equal, too:

a^2 = b^2.

Now subtract b^2 from both sides (if an equation is true, then if

you subtract the same thing from both sides, the result is also

a true equation) so

a^2 - b^2 = 0.

Now the lefthand side of the equation is a form known as "the

difference of two squares" and can be factored into (a-b)*(a+b).

If you don't believe me, then try multiplying it out carefully,

and you will see that it's correct. So:

(a-b)*(a+b) = 0.

Now if you have an equation, you can divide both sides by the same

thing, right? Let's divide by (a-b), so we get:

(a-b)*(a+b) / (a-b) = 0/(a-b).

On the lefthand side, the (a-b)/(a-b) simplifies to 1, right?

and the righthand side simplifies to 0, right? So we get:

1*(a+b) = 0,

and since 1* anything = that same anything, then we have:

(a+b) = 0.

But a = 1 and b = 1, so:

1 + 1 = 0, or 2 = 0.

Now let's divide both sides by 2, and we get:

1 = 0.

Then we add 1 to both sides, and we get what your programming

teacher said, namely:

1 + 1 = 1.

Answer 2

Answer:

it is not possible at all.

there are many fiction about such questions.

but mathematics haven't prove such questions yet.