Math, asked by DevanshuNegi2935, 4 months ago

1+1=3 but 1+1=2 how is it possible??????

Answers

Answered by Aklavya1
1

Answer:

by mistake

Step-by-step explanation:

hahahahhahahahah

Answered by kakarlanikhil108
1

No it can't be 3. But it can be 4. Let's look into it,

let's consider (1+1)^2

[ a^2+2ab+b^2 = (a+b)^2 ] since, a = 1 & b = 1

  • No it can't be 3. But it can be 4.Let's look into it,let's consider (1+1)^2[ a^2+2ab+b^2 = (a+b)^2 ]since, a = 1 & b = 1(1)^2+2×1×1+(1)^2
  • 1+2+1
  • 4

Therefore, it is your solution.

Hope this helps you

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Thank you for your question it had helped me to think

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