Math, asked by debug, 10 months ago

1. Show that Sinz is an analytic function of Z​

Answers

Answered by Andy07
1

Step-by-step explanation:

By definition we have

sin(z)=12ı⋅(eız−e−ız)

sin⁡(z)=12ı⋅(eız−e−ız)

Since the sum of two analytic functions is analytic, it suffices to show that z↦eızz↦eız and z↦e−ızz↦e−ız are analytic. Let z:=x+ıyz:=x+ıy (x,y∈Rx,y∈R), then

eız=eıx⋅e−y=e−y⋅cos(x)=:u(x,y)+ıe−y⋅sinx=:v(x,y)

eız=eıx⋅e−y=e−y⋅cos⁡(x)⏟=:u(x,y)+ıe−y⋅sin⁡x⏟=:v(x,y)

From

∂xu(x,y)=−e−y⋅cos(x)=∂yv(x,y)∂yu(x,y)=−e−y⋅cos(x)=−∂xv(x,y)

∂xu(x,y)=−e−y⋅cos⁡(x)=∂yv(x,y)∂yu(x,y)=−e−y⋅cos⁡(x)=−∂xv(x,y)

we see that the Cauchy-Riemann equations are satisfied. Since the partial derivatives exist (and are continuous) we conclude that z↦eızz↦eız is analytic. A similar argumentation shows that z↦e−ızz↦e−ız is analytic.

Answered by ayaan78950
0

Answer:

Hlo I am Aishvi Sandhu ji

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