Math, asked by ss1105032000, 4 months ago

2. If a set is equivalent to a proper
subset of itself then it is​

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Answered by harshithadamerla2003
0

Answer:

An infinite set is a set which is equivalent to a proper subset of itself. For example, the set of integers is equivalent to the set of even integers--a proper subset (to see this, just note f(n)=2n is a one-to-one function from the integers to the even integers). This definition has some amusing consequences.

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