Math, asked by StarTbia, 1 year ago

(4⁰ + 5⁻¹ ) × 5² × 1/3 (Simplify and give reasons)

Answers

Answered by BloomingBud
26
Hello dear,

See in the attached image.

Hope it helps.

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Answered by mysticd
10
Solution :

**************************************
By Exponential Laws :

i ) a^0 = 1

ii ) 1/a^-n = aⁿ

********************************†*****

Now ,

( 4^0 + 5^-1 ) × 5² × 1/3

= ( 1 + 1/5 ) × 5²/3

=[ ( 5 + 1 )/5 ] × ( 5 × 5 )/3

= 6/5 × ( 5 × 5 )/3

After cancellation , we get

= 2 × 5

= 10

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