Math, asked by Anonymous, 10 months ago

50 POINTSSSSSSS!!!!!!
ANSWER THIS QUESTION PLS

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Answered by varun000
3

Answer:

It is proved that (m-n=1)

I have written formulas used in the above solution at the top of the sheet so that you find it easy to understand...

And at last, if bases are same on both sides of equal sign then their powers are also same. by using that property we concluded the answer ... hope it helps you...

Mark it as brainliest dear if you find it helpful

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