Math, asked by Ashish093, 1 year ago

A box has 20 pens of which 2 are defective. calculate the probability that out of 5 pens drawn one by one with replacement, at most 2 are defective.

Answers

Answered by lakshaymadaan18
0
= 2/20
= 1/10

= 20-5/2
= 15/2

lakshaymadaan18: It will do next with sample space
Ashish093: I have done that.. but it uses binomial distribution..
lakshaymadaan18: What it's neither algebra nor statistics?
Ashish093: no..its probability..
lakshaymadaan18: It's probability
Ashish093: yes.
lakshaymadaan18: Then, what do you need?
Ashish093: I can't understand it's answer I mean the binomial distribution which is used
lakshaymadaan18: Then, I don't know
Ashish093: no problem.
Answered by wifilethbridge
0

Answer:

0.99144.

Step-by-step explanation:

Total pens = 20

Defective pens = 2

Probability of getting defective pens = \frac{2}{20}=\frac{1}{10}

Now we are supposed to find the probability that out of 5 pens drawn one by one with replacement, at most 2 are defective

So, we will use binomial

P(X=r) =^nC_r p^r q^{n-r}

p = Probability of success

q is the probability of failure

in this case success is getting defective pen

So, q =  \frac{1}{10}

p = 1-q= 1-\frac{1}{10}=\frac{9}{10}

we are given that out 5 at most 2 are defective

So, r can be 0,1,2

n = 5

Substitute the value in the formula

P(X) =^{5}C_{0} (\frac{1}{10}^)0 (\frac{9}{10})^{5-0}+^{5}C_{1} (\frac{1}{10}^)1 (\frac{9}{10})^{5-1}+^{5}C_{2} (\frac{1}{10}^)2 (\frac{9}{10})^{5-2}

P(X) =^{5}C_{0}(\frac{9}{10})^{5}+^{5}C_{1} (\frac{1}{10}) (\frac{9}{10})^{4}+^{5}C_{2} (\frac{1}{10})^2 (\frac{9}{10})^{3}

P(X) =(\frac{9}{10})^{5}+5(\frac{1}{10}) (\frac{9}{10})^{4}+10(\frac{1}{10})^2 (\frac{9}{10})^{3}

P(X) =0.99144

Thus the probability that out of 5 pens drawn one by one with replacement, at most 2 are defective is 0.99144.

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