(a) if 1/0 = infinite., then (0*infinite) must be 1 .....right....
(b) but we all know that (something*0) =0......so how my first query (a) is possible ??????
Have you ever think about it ???
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1) becoz if 1 is divided zero,then zero should multiply with any number to get the answer as 1 but it multiplies with every and gets zero so it is not possible so instead mathematicians tell it as infinite or undefined
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Well , you got something wrong interpreted there. First of all, the number system in which we work doesn't allows the arithmetic you are trying to do in part (a), since there is no value for ∞ (infinity), you can't multiply it with a number, NEITHER WITH 0, and hence, you can't achieve the conclusion of '0*∞=1'.
In normal arithmetic we perform, we would need a value for our variable (
'∞' in this case) to successfully satisfy the equation thus formed. So, the maths we study doesn't allows this kind of arithmetic.
Don't forget ∞ isn't a number, it is an existence.
Hope this helps.
I'll debate more on this topic if anybody's willing.
Got any problem? You have the comment section.
HARRY POTTER FOREVER!
(by the way, this was a really interesting question :)
In normal arithmetic we perform, we would need a value for our variable (
'∞' in this case) to successfully satisfy the equation thus formed. So, the maths we study doesn't allows this kind of arithmetic.
Don't forget ∞ isn't a number, it is an existence.
Hope this helps.
I'll debate more on this topic if anybody's willing.
Got any problem? You have the comment section.
HARRY POTTER FOREVER!
(by the way, this was a really interesting question :)
prakhargupta3301:
and ∞*1=∞ yes perhaps that's possible. it could be like 0.
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