a man buys a number of pens for rs 80. if he had bought 4 more pens for the same amount, each pen would have cost him re 1 less. how many pens did he buy?
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Answered by
64
Let the number of pens bought initially be x
Total cost = Rs 80
Cost of each pen = Rs (80/x)
Number of pens increased = 4
Now total number of pens = (x + 4)
New cost of each pen = Rs [80/(x+4)]
By the given problem, we have
⇒ (x+ 20)(x – 16) = 0
∴ x = - 20 or x = 16
Since x cannot be negative, x =16
Hence the number of pens bought initially is16.
Total cost = Rs 80
Cost of each pen = Rs (80/x)
Number of pens increased = 4
Now total number of pens = (x + 4)
New cost of each pen = Rs [80/(x+4)]
By the given problem, we have
⇒ (x+ 20)(x – 16) = 0
∴ x = - 20 or x = 16
Since x cannot be negative, x =16
Hence the number of pens bought initially is16.
Answered by
48
Let the number of pens bought initially be x
Total cost = Rs 80
Cost of each pen = Rs (80/x)
Number of pens increased = 4
Now total number of pens = (x + 4)
New cost of each pen = Rs [80/(x+4)]
By the given problem, we have
⇒ (x+ 20)(x – 16) = 0
∴ x = - 20 or x = 16
Since x cannot be negative, x =16
Hence the number of pens bought initially is16.
Hope it helps so you please please please mark it as brainliest.
Thank you -
Total cost = Rs 80
Cost of each pen = Rs (80/x)
Number of pens increased = 4
Now total number of pens = (x + 4)
New cost of each pen = Rs [80/(x+4)]
By the given problem, we have
⇒ (x+ 20)(x – 16) = 0
∴ x = - 20 or x = 16
Since x cannot be negative, x =16
Hence the number of pens bought initially is16.
Hope it helps so you please please please mark it as brainliest.
Thank you -
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