Math, asked by divyanshi7286, 8 months ago

A sells a bicycle to B at a profit of 20%. B sells it to C at a profit of 25%. If C pays Rs. 225 for it, the cost price of the bicycle for A is?​

Answers

Answered by pankajbansal1312
6

Step-by-step explanation:

Let cost price for A = Rs. 100.

SP for A = CP for B = 100 + 20% of 100 = 120.

SP for B = CP for C = 120 + 25% of 120 = 150.

Given,

CP for C = 225

So,

150 = 225

1 = 225/150

100 = (225 *100)/150 = Rs. 150.

CP for A = Rs. 150.

Note: You can solve this question by taking CP of A = X as well.

Answered by saounksh
4

ᴀɴsᴡᴇʀ

  • CP of Bicycle for A is Rs. 150.

ᴇxᴘʟᴀɪɴᴀᴛɪᴏɴ

Here,

\:\:\:\:\: CP\:of\:C = Rs.225

Since CP of C is SP of B,

\implies SP\:of\:B = Rs. 225

\implies (CP + Profit)\:of\:B = Rs.225

Since B sell at 25% profit,

\:\:\:\:\: (CP + 25\%CP)\:of\:B = Rs. 225

\implies (CP + \frac{25}{100}CP)\:of\:B = Rs. 225

\implies (CP + \frac{CP}{4})\:of\:B= Rs. 225

\implies \frac{(4+1)CP}{4} \:of\:B = Rs. 225

\implies \frac{5CP}{4}\:of\:B = Rs. 225

\implies CP\:of\:B = Rs. 225\times \frac{4}{5}

\implies CP\:of\:B = Rs. 180

Since CP of B is SP of A

\implies SP\:of\:A = Rs. 180

\implies (CP + Profit)\:of\:A= Rs. 180

Since A sells at 20% profit,

\:\:\:\:\: (CP + 20\%CP)\:of\:A= Rs. 180

\implies (CP + \frac{20}{100}CP)\:of\:A= Rs. 180

\implies (CP + \frac{CP}{5})\:of\:A= Rs. 180

\implies \frac{(5+1)CP}{5}\:of\:A= Rs. 180

\implies \frac{6CP}{5}\:of\:A= Rs. 180

\implies CP\:of\:A= Rs.180\times \frac{5}{6}

\implies CP\:of\:A= Rs.30\times 5

\implies CP\:of\:A= Rs.150

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