Physics, asked by Raja7542, 1 year ago

A simple pendulum with bob of mass m and length x is held in position at angle thetha 1 and then angle thetha 2 with the vertical when released from these positions speed with which it passes the lowest positions are v1 and v2 repectively then v1/v2

Answers

Answered by QHM
85

The solution is provided in the attachment.

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Answered by CarliReifsteck
72

Answer:

The value of \dfrac{v_{1}}{v_{2}} is \sqrt{\dfrac{(1-\cos\theta_{1})}{(1-\cos\theta_{2})}}

Explanation:

Given that,

Mass of bob = m

Length =x

Angle = Ф₁

Angle = Ф₂

The height by which pendulum is raised is

h=x-x\cos\theta_{1}

The potential energy at this point is

P.E=mgx(1-\cos\theta_{1})

The kinetic energy at lowest point is

K.E=\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2

Now, These two energies must be equal

K.E=P.E

\dfrac{1}{2}mv_{1}^2=mgx(1-\cos\theta_{1})......(I)

For second position

\dfrac{1}{2}mv_{2}^2=mgx(1-\cos\theta_{2})......(II)

Divided equation (I) by equation (II)

\dfrac{v_{1}^2}{v_{2}^2}=\dfrac{(1-\cos\theta_{1})}{(1-\cos\theta_{2})}

\dfrac{v_{1}}{v_{2}}=\sqrt{\dfrac{(1-\cos\theta_{1})}{(1-\cos\theta_{2})}}

Hence, The value of \dfrac{v_{1}}{v_{2}} is \sqrt{\dfrac{(1-\cos\theta_{1})}{(1-\cos\theta_{2})}}.

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