Biology, asked by Alishaloveheldator, 2 days ago

A woman of 30 years has started menstruating and there is no ovulation as well. What can be inferred from this?
(for class 8)​

Answers

Answered by roobinik360
0

Explanation:

If the hypothalamus does not secrete gonadotropin-releasing hormone, a synthetic version of this hormone (called gonadorelin acetate), given intravenously, may be useful. This drug, like the natural hormone, stimulates the pituitary gland to produce the hormones that stimulate ovulation. The risk of ovarian hyperstimulation is low with this treatment, so close monitoring is not needed. However, this drug is not available in the United States.

If the hypothalamus does not secrete gonadotropin-releasing hormone, a synthetic version of this hormone (called gonadorelin acetate), given intravenously, may be useful. This drug, like the natural hormone, stimulates the pituitary gland to produce the hormones that stimulate ovulation. The risk of ovarian hyperstimulation is low with this treatment, so close monitoring is not needed. However, this drug is not available in the United States.When the cause of infertility is high levels of the hormone prolactin, the best drug to use is one that acts like dopamine, called a dopamine agonist, such as bromocriptine or cabergoline. (Dopamine is a chemical messenger that generally inhibits the production of prolactin.)

Answered by kasnikaur
0
That she can not reproduce a baby
Similar questions