Question

answer of this question,
$0 ^{0}$
please give Answer after well understanding ...

Answer 1

HELLO DEAR,

in my view the ANSWER is not defined because

${0}^{0} = {0}^{(p - p)} \\ = > {0}^{p} \times \frac{1}{ {0}^{p} } \\ = > {0}^{p} \times \infty = not \: defined$
I HOPE ITS HELP YOU DEAR,
THANKS

Answer 2

Hey mate..
========

From rules of exponent we know, a^n = a*a*a*a*a……… n times

so a^1 = a if a= 0 then 0^1 = 0

Again we know, a^(m-n) = a^m /a^n, a is not equal to zero

so if m = n then a^0 = 1

BUT for a = 0 things are different. because 0^0 is is Indeterminate .Because we don’t actually know which one is the exact answer for this due to having lots of results for this.let me explain,

lets think by this analogy that,

0^1 = 0

0^2 = 0

………….

………….

so, we can say 0^0 = 0

Again, another analogy,

1 ^0 = 1

2 ^ 0 = 1

…………

………..

so, we can say 0^0 = 1

Now, you see it’s confusing. Every analog is mathematically correct then which one is the right answer for 0^0 therefore Mathematics can’t determine this fact.

So, 0^0 is indeterminate

Hope it helps !!