Math, asked by aadi2203, 1 year ago

answer plzzz.........

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Answered by vivek401
1
We have,
px + qy = p – q …(i)
qx – py = p + q …(ii)
To solve these equations, we need to make one of the variables (in both the equations) have same coefficient.
Lets multiply equation (i) by p and (ii) by q, so that variable y in both the equations have same coefficient.
Recalling equations (i) & (ii),
px + qy = p – q [×p]
qx – py = p + q [×q]

⇒ p2x + q2x = p2 + q2
⇒ (p2 + q2)x = p2 + q2
⇒ x = 1
Substitute x = 1 in equations (i)/(ii), as per convenience of solving.
Thus, substituting in equation (i), we get
p + qy = p – q
⇒ qy = - q
⇒ y = - 1
Hence, we have x = 1 and y = - 

aadi2203: tysm
vivek401: hence we have x=1 and y=-1
aadi2203: thank you so much
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aadi2203: idk how to do that
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aadi2203: it's not written it comes after 24 hours i will mark you as brainliest
vivek401: ok thanks
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vivek401: mark me
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