Math, asked by ahana4950, 11 months ago

Answer:
The selling price of a chocolate is 8 Rs.
The cost price of that chocolate is 8.50 Rs.

Here,The selling price is more than the cost price ,it is profitable.
That is ,profit= (8.50-8.00) Rs
= 0.50 Rs

there is profit of,
0.50 Rs.for 1 chocolate
1 " " ( 1÷0.50) "
25 " " ( 25÷ 0.50)"
= 50 chocolates (Ans)


My question is - guys, is my math correct?
If its not ,so then explain it to me..


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Answers

Answered by dragonsdragon
1

Answer:

Yes of course you can do it and you will

Answered by ayanahmed2003786
1

Answer:

Your path was on the right way but you just get confused (8.50-8.00)=.50 is the loss not that gain as he is selling it at 8.00and not 8.50

And if you know understand you can complete the problem sum

Best of luck

And Thank you

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