Math, asked by reeddhimondal, 8 months ago

Answer this questions of n.o. 8​

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Answers

Answered by KeshavDharni
0

Step-by-step explanation:

we know (a+b)(a-b)=a²-b²

so

(p-q)(p+q)+(q-r)(q+r)+(r-p)(r+p)

=p²-q²+q²-r²+r²-p²

=0

hence proved

please mark me as brainest

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