Question

Any countably infinite set is equivalent to proper subset of itself​

Answer 1

Answer:Recall that two sets are equivalent if they can be placed in one-to-one correspondence (so that each element of the first set corresponds to exactly one of the second). For finite sets this means they have the same number of elements. An infinite set is a set which is equivalent to a proper subset of itself.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer 2

TRUE

The set of integers, for example, is a valid subset of the set of even integers (notice that f(n)=2n is a one-to-one function from the integers to the even integers). There are two main types of infinite sets: those that are equivalent to a subset of the integers (referred as countable) and those who are not (called uncountable). Primes, composite figures, and positive numbers can all be counted. The rational numbers, the collection of polynomials with integer coefficients, and hence the algebraic numbers, are also rational numbers.