Question

are f(x)and g(x) inverse function of each other ​

Answer 1

Answer:

no it must not be possible there are some other ways to do

Answer 2

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Let f(x) be y

x = f inverse y

$\frac{x+3}{x-2} = y$

x+3 = xy - 2y

xy - x = 3 + 2y

x ( y-1) = 3 + 2y

$x = \frac{3 + 2y}{y-1}$

We previously said that f = f inverse y

substitute that in place of x

f inverse y = $\frac{2y + 3\\}{y-1}$

Put x in place of y

f inverse x = $\frac{2x+3}{x-1}$

                  = g(x)

Therefore f(x) and g(x) are inverse functions

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