History, asked by 5353pandeyashok, 4 months ago

Are some of the rituals and practices associated with the mughal followed by present-day political leaders?​

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Answered by roylily1958
0

Answer:

1This paper is concerned with the issues that had a bearing on the relationship between religion and Mughal politics. It forms part of a larger work on the process of state formation under the Mughals. Earlier in a similar paper I suggested that the Mughal state rather than being a structure perfected at a given point of time, could be seen as a process, which incorporated and adjusted to the traditions and customs of the peoples as well as to the regions that were integrated into the empire over the years. The Mughal system, which looked so compact at first instance in the imperial Persian chronicles, was not uniform throughout the empire; its systemised ẓabṭ (measurement of land and revenue demand in cash) system extended little beyond the core provinces and there were obvious regional variations within the all embracing pax Mughalica1. It is from this perspective that I will attempt here to examine the norms and the principles which governed, or at least were intended to govern, the coordination of the interests of the Mughal rulers and their Hindu subjects, including the land holders, the merchants and the other magnates. I have thus considered in some detail the question of shari‘a and the complexities of its relevance in medieval Indian politics.

2Before the Mughals, the “Muslim” sultans in India attempted in their own limited ways to resolve the problems related to the compatibility of the shari‘a with their political actions. But the ambivalence continued and even the regional sultans during the fifteenth century had to turn to the shari‘a to legitimate their political acts. For a politically amenable interpretation of the shari‘a in 1579 even Akbar, the Great Mughal, sought the approval of the ulama (maḥżar). Toward the last phase of Akbar’s reign, however, and in the seventeenth and the eighteenth centuries under the Mughal regime, the centrality of the shari‘a in the political discourse waned. Is this change in stance related to the fact that the Muslim state builders in India had become wiser by then? Or can we discern any radical change in the position of the political theorists of the period? It appears that the “law of Chingiz Khan”, tura-ye Chengizi, contributed to this shift when it emerged as the reference point for discussions on governance under the Mughals. But more importantly we need to explain whether this seventeenth century trend also indicated the emergence of a new understanding of Islam and shari‘a. Further, we have to examine if the Sufi tradition or the Persian literary culture which emphasised accommodation and compromise were now becoming increasingly central to state building. While evaluating the context of this shift, the paper also indicates how a Timurid Central Asian tradition, encapsuled not in tura-ye Chengizi but in some politico-ethical writings compiled in fifteenth century Herat, influenced and inspired this developement.

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Answered by aditya914548
2

Answer:

yes, it is because now it is happening different small parts of India . Specially in North India . Because the mughal was situated there

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