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In my book in one page its written that when the substance reaches at a particular temperature the particles have sufficient kinetic energy to overcome the force of attraction but in the other page its written that the heat energy is used to overcome the force of attraction so Is kinetic energy or heat energy is used to overcome the force of attraction?? Explain in detail
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Devipvu2004:
Plz help me friends
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The heat energy is a specific form of energy.
So when heated , the particles will get heat energy and it is transformed into kinetic energy of particles.
The particles will get some velocity due to this kinetic energy that is transformed by heat energy.
because we know ....
K.E.=1/2 mv^2.
So the particles will start vibrations by getting energy
So when heated , the particles will get heat energy and it is transformed into kinetic energy of particles.
The particles will get some velocity due to this kinetic energy that is transformed by heat energy.
because we know ....
K.E.=1/2 mv^2.
So the particles will start vibrations by getting energy
the particles always are in vibrations because they always have energy. they have a particular phase at particular temperatures.when they are heated , they get more energy and their phase change due to more vibrations
How heat eenergy is used to change their state not vibration right??
Plz replyy
their state is changed because of vibrations. we know that solids have higher attraction and low cavities between particles than liquids.
their vibrations causes the overcome on attraction
feel free to ask if you didn't understand
??
But its said that heat energy is used to overcome the force of attraction
And when it reaches at a particular temperature kinetic energy of particles remain same
Then if that vibration was sufficient then why the particles need heat energy
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