Math, asked by korlamonica97, 10 months ago

By selling a house for Rs.45000, it was found that 1/8 of the outlay was gained, what ought the selling to price to have been in order to have lost 5 p.c?

Answers

Answered by eudora
5

The selling price would be ₹ 342,000 in order to have loss 5%.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the original cost of the house be = x

Selling price of the house = ₹ 45,000

The man gained  \frac{1}{8}  of the outlay, his gain was = \frac{1}{8}x

That is equal to 45,000.

\frac{1}{8}x = 45,000

x = 360,000

The original price of the house was ₹360,000.

If he sells the house in order to have loss 5%, the amount would be

= 360,000-(5% of 360,000)

= 360,000 - 18,000

= ₹ 342,000

The selling price would be ₹ 342,000 in order to have loss 5%.

Learn more about cost price and selling price : https://brainly.in/question/13259905

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