Physics, asked by abhi54sharmastar, 1 year ago

Can an object be said to be in motion if it has speed 0m/s?​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
10

 \huge \boxed{\pink\star\mathfrak\orange{\large{\underline{\underline{Answer!}}}} }

No, it cannot be because motion means movement and at 0 m/s there is not movement.

Therefore, the object cannot be at motion.


simrannagrale: hiii
Answered by kanishak1610
1

Answer:

Yes it can be

Explanation:

Our basic question is: if an object is at rest, is its acceleration necessarily zero?

For example, if a car sits at rest its velocity is, by definition, equal to zero. But what about its acceleration?

To answer this question, we will need to look at what velocity and acceleration really mean in terms of the motion of an object. We will use both conceptual and mathematical analyses to determine the correct answer: the object's acceleration is not necessarily zero just because its velocity is zero. This may seem strange at first, but if we unpack it a bit, it should start to make sense.

If we think about the problem quickly, it might seem the acceleration must be zero. At one moment, we're not moving, and a small time later we're still not moving, so there has not been a change in speed. Therefore, the acceleration has to be zero.

There is a mistake here that we can see without doing any calculations.

It's clear that on a regular basis, objects that start out at rest end up in motion. For example, a person standing up from a chair or a plane taking off from a runway. In these cases, there is a clear change from zero velocity to non-zero velocity even though the object starts out at rest. This implies that there must be a moment where the object's acceleration is non-zero although the object remains in the same position

Similar questions