Math, asked by PhantomZeus, 11 months ago

Can i write sin^6 A + cos^6 A as
(sin^3 A)^2 + (cos^3 A)^2 and then writing it as 1 bcoz sin^2 A + cos^2 A = 1?

Answers

Answered by shivam123ortanpd76q9

1

no .... because sin^2A + cos^2A =1

PhantomZeus: So does it have to be exactly sin^2 A and cos^2 A and what could be done to reduce sin^4 A + cos^4 A

shivam123ortanpd76q9: you can change cos^4A to (1-sin^2A)^2

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