Physics, asked by trisharoy3083, 11 months ago

Can we always effectively describe a timelike worldline (non-geodesic) in one spacetime as a geodesic in some other spacetime?

Answers

Answered by GhaintMunda45
3

Hey !

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With this assumption, one can relate the Minkowski proper time, which is the invariant length of a segment of a timelike worldline

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Thanks !

Answered by heya1270
44

Answer:

Is this implied by the equivalence principle saying that acceleration and gravitation are indistinguishable.

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