Math, asked by chitranshi30, 1 year ago

can you simplify my question

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Answered by WritersParadise01
5
Hey mate! here's your answer!

since, bases are same , and division is there, so we will subtract the exponents.

therefore,


  \frac{{m}^{4}  - 1}{ {m}^{2}  - 1}

 =  {(m})^{4 - 2}  -  ({1)}^{1 - 1}

 =  {m}^{2}  -  ({1})^{0}

 =  {m}^{2}  - 1


hope it is helpful ✌️!

chitranshi30: why did you subtract the power
WritersParadise01: i have written that when bases are same and we have to divide them, so subtraction will be therr
WritersParadise01: there*
WritersParadise01: subtraction of exponents!!
chitranshi30: oh I am now able to understand
WritersParadise01: .☺️
chitranshi30: thanks for your answere
WritersParadise01: ur wlcm.
chitranshi30: by
WritersParadise01: bye
Answered by TooFree
6

\dfrac{m^4 - 1}{m^2 - 1}


write is the form a² - b²:

=\dfrac{(m^2)^2 - 1^2}{m^2 - 1}


Apply a² - b² = (a + b) (a - b):

=\dfrac{(m^2- 1) ( m^2 + 1)}{m^2 - 1}


Cancel off common factor m² - 1:

= m^2 + 1

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