( cos x - sin x )^ 2 = 1- sin 2 x
Answers
Answered by
0
Answer:
It depends on how far back you need to go in your proof.
If you can use:
sin
2
(
x
)
+
cos
2
(
x
)
=
1
(which can be derived from the Pythagorean Theorem)
and
sin
(
2
x
)
=
2
sin
(
x
)
⋅
cos
(
x
)
(the Double Angle Formula for sin, which is considerably more complicate to prove)
then the requested proof is fairly simple:
(
sin
(
x
)
+
cos
(
x
)
)
2
=
sin
2
(
x
)
+
2
sin
(
x
)
⋅
cos
(
x
)
+
cos
2
(
x
)
=
[
sin
2
(
x
)
+
cos
2
(
x
)
]
+
2
sin
(
x
)
⋅
cos
(
x
)
=
1
+
sin
(
2
x
)
Answered by
2
∴
⇒
⇒
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