d/dx(sin⁻¹x+cos⁻¹x)=........(| x | <1),Select Proper option from the given options.
(a) 0
(b) 2/√1-x²
(c) 1/√1-x²
(d) does not exist
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In the attachment I have answered this problem. The solution of this problem is simple and easy to understand. See the attachment for detailed solution
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we have to find out the value of
definitely , if you know about concept of inverse trigonometric functions, you will get its answer just 1 second.
as you know,
so, we can write π/2 in place of sin^-1x + cos^-1x .
so,
= 0 [ as we know ,π/2 is constant and derivative of constant function is zero.]
hence, answer is 0.
therefore, option (a) is correct
definitely , if you know about concept of inverse trigonometric functions, you will get its answer just 1 second.
as you know,
so, we can write π/2 in place of sin^-1x + cos^-1x .
so,
= 0 [ as we know ,π/2 is constant and derivative of constant function is zero.]
hence, answer is 0.
therefore, option (a) is correct
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