Physics, asked by syedahumerahashmi, 7 months ago

Derive the expression for the speed of sound wave.

Answers

Answered by ShreshthaSaha
1

Answer:

Here is your answer

Explanation:

The derivation of the wave equation certainly varies depending on context. There is a particular simple physical setting for the derivation. Moreover, this setting is that of small oscillations on a piece of string in accordance with the Hooke’s law.

One must consider the forces acting on a small element of particular mass dm contained in a small interval dx. In case of a small displacement, the horizontal force is approximately zero. The vertical force happens to be

\Sigma F_{y}ΣF

y

= {T}’ sin\Theta_{2}T’sinΘ

2

– T sin\Theta_{1}sinΘ

1

= (dm)a = \mu dx \frac{\delta ^2 y}{\delta t^2}μdx

δt

2

δ

2

y

Here, µ refers to the mass density, \mu = \frac{\delta m}{\delta x}μ=

δx

δm

On the other hand, the horizontal force is approximately zero when displacements are small, T cos \theta^{1} \approx T{}’cos \theta_{2} \approx TTcosθ

1

≈T’cosθ

2

≈T. So,

-\frac{\mu dx\frac{\delta^{2}y}{\delta t^{2}}}{T}−

T

μdx

δt

2

δ

2

y

\approx≈ \frac{T{}’sin \theta_{2 + T sin \theta_{1}}}{T}

T

T’sinθ

2+Tsinθ

1

= \frac{{T}’sin\theta_{1}}{T}

T

T’sinθ

1

+ \frac{T sin\theta_{1}}{T}

T

Tsinθ

1

\approx \frac{{T}’ sin\theta_{2}}{T{}’ cos}≈

T’cos

T’sinθ

2

+ \frac{T sin\theta_{1}}{T cos\theta_{1}}

Tcosθ

1

Tsinθ

1

= tan\theta_{1} + tan\theta_{2}tanθ

1

+tanθ

2

But, tan \theta_{1}tanθ

1

+ tan \theta_{2}tanθ

2

= -\Delta \frac{\delta y}{\delta x}−Δ

δx

δy

, the difference happens to be between x and x + dx. This is because, the tangent is certainly equal to the slope in a geometrical manner. So, if one divides over dx, one finds

-\frac{\mu \frac{\delta^{2}y}{\delta t^{2}}}{T}−

T

μ

δt

2

δ

2

y

= \frac{tan \theta_{1} + tan \theta_{2}}{dx}

dx

tanθ

1

+tanθ

2

= -\frac{\Delta \frac{\delta y}{\delta x}}{dx}−

dx

Δ

δx

δy

The rightmost term above refers to the definition of the derivative with respect to x. This is because, the difference is over an interval dx, and therefore one has

\frac{\mu }{T} \frac{\delta ^{2}y}{\delta t^{2}}

T

μ

δt

2

δ

2

y

= \frac{\delta ^{2}y}{\delta x^{2}}

δx

2

δ

2

y

which happens to be exactly the wave equation in one dimension for velocity v = \sqrt{\frac{T}{\mu }}

μ

T

.

.

.

plzz mark it as the brainiest answer!!!

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