History, asked by khana3, 1 year ago

distinguish between Aryans and indo Aryans

Answers

Answered by Adishra
7
The Aryans are not native to India. This fact should be obvious considering their cousins in Iran, Afghanistan, and possibly even Armenia call themselves similar names. The term Aryan first appeared in India, in the Rig Veda, however, the people that used this term migrated to India from the north west. 
The first evidence of Indo Aryan language we have is from 1600BC in Syria. The Mittani were a Hurrian people living in Syria, but amazingly their kings spoke an Indo-Aryan language. There is a horse training manual by Kikkuli written in this language, very similar to Sanskrit. A treaty between the Mittani and the Hittites even calls Vedic gods such as Indra and Varuna to witness! It has been proposed that after the Indo-Aryans and the Iranians broke off from the Andronovo culture the Iranians stayed in the north while the Indo-Aryans moved south. Some believe that the Indo-Aryans were not only in Syria and India, but spread across the whole middle east, and that the reason why the Mittani Aryans in Syria and the Indian Aryans were separated was because of the arrival of Iranians in what is now called Iran. Zoraster was known to be intolerant of other religions (the Vedic hero gods are demons in the Zorastrian Avesta) and some believe that he kicked the Vedics out of Iran. 



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Answered by jaskaransinghse
2
Linguistically the Indo-Aryans are synonymous with Aryans, they share common ancestors with the Iranians, and even almost all Europeans. I think the Iranians called themselves Aryans, however, the Sanskrit speaking Indians come to mind first in any discussion about Aryans. The Sanskrit speakers, or Aryas as the called themselves descended to India from the steppes of southern Russia (from the Andronovo culture). They used the term Arya, which means noble in Sanskrit, to designate themselves from the indigenous Dravidian and Elamite peoples. Later the term Arya lost its ethnic meaning and primarily meant noble, or lord. For instance, a wife would call her husband "Aryaputrah", lord, or literally son of a noble. 
The Aryans are not native to India. This fact should be obvious considering their cousins in Iran, Afghanistan, and possibly even Armenia call themselves similar names. The term Aryan first appeared in India, in the Rig Veda, however, the people that used this term migrated to India from the north west. The first evidence of Indo Aryan language we have is from 1600BC in Syria. The Mittani were a Hurrian people living in Syria, but amazingly their kings spoke an Indo-Aryan language. There is a horse training manual by Kikkuli written in this language, very similar to Sanskrit. A treaty between the Mittani and the Hittites even calls Vedic gods such as Indra and Varuna to witness! It has been proposed that after the Indo-Aryans and the Iranians broke off from the Andronovo culture the Iranians stayed in the north while the Indo-Aryans moved south. Some believe that the Indo-Aryans were not only in Syria and India, but spread across the whole middle east, and that the reason why the Mittani Aryans in Syria and the Indian Aryans were separated was because of the arrival of Iranians in what is now called Iran. Zoraster was known to be intolerant of other religions (the Vedic hero gods are demons in the Zorastrian Avesta) and some believe that he kicked the Vedics out of Iran. If the Aryans were not native to India we would not have the connection between Sanskrit and Iranian, German, Greek, Latin Celtic, ect.
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