Social Sciences, asked by Sameer1021, 11 months ago

Equality before law did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage in Europe. Discuss

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Answered by puneetbeast80
47

Answer:1. Equality before the law did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage. 2. In revolutionary France, which marked the first political experiment in liberal democracy, the right to vote and to get elected was granted exclusively to property-owning men. 3. Men without property and all women were excluded from political rights. Only for a brief period under the Jacobins did all adult males enjoy suffrage. 4. However, the Napoleonic Code went back to limited suffrage and reduced women to the status of a minor, subject to the authority of fathers and husbands. 5. Throughout the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries women and non-propertied men organised opposition movements demanding equal political rights. Or any other relevant point.

Explanation:

Answered by jcranjith7
4

Answer:

The new middle class in Europe advocated the concept of liberalism emphasizing the concept of freedom and equality for all. But at the same time, this was not visible in the political experiment around Europe. The right to vote was exclusively with the propertied class, that too only men. Women even with property rights were excluded from right to vote. The Jacobins who stood for revolution for equality were also biased on this issue. They too granted right to vote to all adult male population only. Napoleon who stood to end privileges too reduced women to the margin of the society with no political rights. For long did these women and non-propertied male struggled to win political rights for themselves. Read more on Sarthaks.com - https://www.sarthaks.com/495266/equality-before-law-did-not-necessarily-stand-for-universal-suffrage-in-europe-discuss

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