History, asked by Sanjayram2003, 11 months ago

equality before law did notstand for universal suffrage in France after the revolution.explain with suitable example​

Answers

Answered by gauravarduino
2

Explanation:

“Equality before law did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage in France after the revolution.” Universal suffrage or universal right to vote was never granted. ... Men without property and all women did not get political rights. Only briefly under the Jacobins all the adult males enjoyed suffrage.

Answered by Anonymous
10

"Equality before law did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage in France after the revolution.” Universal suffrage or universal right to vote was never granted. Men without property and all women did not get political rights. Only briefly under the Jacobins all the adult males enjoyed suffrage.

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