Math, asked by dastagiri7789, 1 year ago

Evaluate:∫(0->π ) (x sinx)/(1+cos^2x) dx

Answers

Answered by zeborg
1
It can be solved in two ways, I've mentioned both. Ask if you have any doubt at any step.
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Answered by Pitymys
0

The below mentioned answer is not correct. Because the denominator is  1+\cos^2 x not  1+\cos 2x . Immediately delete that answer.

Use the property of the definite integral,

 \int\limits^a_0 {f(x)} \, dx =\int\limits^a_0 {f(a-x)} \, dx  .

Here we have to find,

 \int\limits^{\pi}_0 {\frac{x\sin x}{1+\cos^2 x}} \, dx   .

Now using the property of the integrals,

 I=\int\limits^{\pi}_0 {\frac{x\sin x}{1+\cos^2 x}} \, dx   .....................(1)\\<br />I=\int\limits^{\pi}_0 {\frac{(\pi-x)\sin (\pi-x)}{1+\cos^2 (\pi-x)}} \, dx  \\<br />I=\int\limits^{\pi}_0 {\frac{(\pi-x)\sin x}{1+\cos^2 x}} \, dx  ........................(2)

Adding equations (1) and (2),

 2I=\int\limits^{\pi}_0 {\frac{\pi\sin x}{1+\cos^2 x}} \,dx \\<br />2I=\pi\int\limits^{\pi}_0 {\frac{\sin x}{1+\cos^2 x}}  \,dx\\<br />2I=-\pi [\tan^{-1}(\cos x)]^{\pi}_0\\<br />2I=-\pi [\tan^{-1}(-1)-\tan^{-1}(0)]\\<br />2I=-\pi *(\frac{\pi}{4})\\<br />2I=\frac{\pi^2}{4}\\<br />I=\frac{\pi^2}{8}<br />

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