English, asked by shamimraj42, 10 months ago

Explain above 'been' in indirect speech​

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Answered by venupillai
1

Answer:

Please see explanation.

Explanation:

"been" is the past participle of the verb "to be".

When the direct speech is in "past tense", the indirect speech becomes in the "past perfect" tense.

The past perfect of a verb is obtained by:

Past tense of the verb "have" + past participle of the verb.

In our case, the verb is "to be".

=> The past perfect of "to be" is obtained by:

Past tense of the verb "to be" + past participle of the verb.

I had been; he had been, we had been, you had been, they had been, etc.

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