Math, asked by RajnishKumar7371, 1 day ago

F(x) =1/x by 1st principle of derivative

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Answered by Anonymous
1

By first principle of differentiation, the first order derivative of a function f(x) is given by the following limit:

  • {\boxed{\bf{f^{\prime}(x)=\displaystyle \bf \lim_{h\to0}\dfrac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}}}}

So, if f(x) = (1/x), then f(x+h) = (1/x+h)

Substitute the values in the limit:

{:\implies \quad \displaystyle \sf f^{\prime}(x)=\lim_{h\to0}\dfrac{\dfrac{1}{x+h}-\dfrac{1}{x}}{h}}

{:\implies \quad \displaystyle \sf f^{\prime}(x)=\lim_{h\to0}\dfrac{x-x-h}{hx(x+h)}}

{:\implies \quad \displaystyle \sf f^{\prime}(x)=\lim_{h\to0}\dfrac{-1}{x(x+h)}}

{:\implies \quad \boxed{\bf{f^{\prime}(x)=-\dfrac{1}{x^2}}}}

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