Math, asked by Ironick, 1 year ago

Find the answer of this qution

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Answered by aarzoo5

right answer is option 2 (180°)

aarzoo5: 9th class

Ironick: but this is tru when it in circle

Ironick: There is no circle

aarzoo5: if we find its center and try to draw the circle then all sides are touching to circle

Ironick: Yes

Ironick: From where you are??

aarzoo5: first i am also not able to find the answer of this question the my maths sir told me the answer of this question

aarzoo5: i am from jhajjar,haryana

Ironick: ok thanks

aarzoo5: ok

Answered by erinna

Answer:

The correct option is 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given information: ED=FC, $\frac{AF}{BE}=1$

It is given that

$\frac{AF}{BE}=1$

We get

$AF=BE$ ... (1)

All sides of a rhombus are same.

$AD=DC$

$AD-ED=DC-ED$ (Subtract ED from both sides)

$AD-ED=DC-FC$ (ED=FC)

$AE=DF$ .... (2)

In triangle ADF and BAE,

$AF=BE$ (Using (1))

$DF=AE$ (Using (2))

$AD=AB$ (definition of rhombus)

By SSS postulate,

$\triangle ADF\cong \triangle BAE$

$\angle AFD\cong \angle BEA$ (CPCTC)

Angle BEA and angle BED lie on a straight line AD.

$\angle BEA+\angle BED=180$

$\angle AFD+\angle BED=180$ $(\because \angle AFD\cong \angle BEA)$

The sum of ∠BEA and ∠BED is 180°.

Therefore the correct option is 2.

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