Math, asked by 31abubakar333, 2 months ago

Find the Laplace transform of e-at u(t) and its ROC.​

Answers

Answered by Lalitakalyani154
3

Answer:

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Answered by amazetappo
0

Laplace transform of  e^{at}u(t)  is  \frac{1}{(s-a)} with ROC of s > a

Step by step explanation:

To Find:

Laplace transform of  e^{at}u(t) and its ROC

Formula used:

X(s) = \int\limits^{\infty}_{-\infty} {x(t)}*e^{-st} \, dt

Solution:

Here x(t) = e^{at}u(t) so we apply the formula of Laplace transform. where u(t) is a unit step signal from 0 to \infty with an amplitude of 1

X(s) = \int\limits^{\infty}_{-\infty} {e^{at}u(t)}*e^{-st} \, dt

now we remove u(t) by changing the limit

X(s) = \int\limits^{\infty}_{0} {e^{at}}*e^{-st} \, dt

X(s) = \int\limits^{\infty}_{0} {e^{at-st} \, dt

Taking the power common

X(s) = \int\limits^{\infty}_{0} {e^{-(s-a)t} \, dt

Applying integration

X(s) =\frac{e^{-(s-a)t}}{-(s-a)} ]^{\infty}_{0}

On substitution

X(s) = (\frac{e^{-(s-a)\infty}}{-(s-a)} ) - (\frac{e^{-(s-a)0}}{-(s-a)} )

X(s) =\frac{{0-1}}{-(s-a)}

X(s) =\frac{{1}}{(s-a)}

Since the integral is from 0 to \infty  , that is t>0.

which means s - a > 0

                      s > a

                     

so, the ROC is s > a

Therefore, Laplace transform of  e^{at}u(t)  is  \frac{1}{(s-a)} with ROC of s > a

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