Math, asked by jemsbaba921, 4 months ago

Find the multiplicative inverse of 1

(4−3i)​

Answers

Answered by ravirajpsdyanti07
0

Step-by-step explanation:

The multiplicative inverse of 1 is in fact 1/1 which is equal to 1. So 1 is its own multiplicative inverse

Answered by dilshad3268
1

Answer:

the multiplicative inverse of 1 is 1

Similar questions