Math, asked by mithranajay, 9 months ago

For any positive integer n, prove that (1+1/n)^n < (1+1/n+1)^n+1

Answers

Answered by SamikBiswa1911
1

Step-by-step explanation:

Show that for n ≥ 1, we have

(a) Xn

k=1

k =

n(n + 1)

2

(b) Xn

k=1

(2k − 1) = n

2

.

Solution. 1

(a): We first check the base case, n = 1. The sum is 1 and the formula evaluates to

1 as well, so we are good.

Induction hypothesis: Assume that for some n ≥ 1 we have

Xn

k=1

k =

n(n + 1)

2

.

We add (n + 1) on both sides of this relation and get

nX

+1

k=1

k = (n + 1) + n(n + 1)

2

.

The right hand side can now be rewritten as

nX

+1

k=1

k =

[n + 1]([n + 1] + 1)

2

.

Thus, we have proved that if the formula holds for n, it holds for n + 1. By the

principle of mathematical induction, the identity is true for all integers n ≥ 1.

(b): We first check the base case, n = 1. Both sides evaluates to 1, so we are ok.

Induction hypothesis: Assume that for some n ≥ 1 we have

Xn

k=1

(2k − 1) = n

2

.

We add 2(n + 1) − 1 on both sides of this relation and get

nX

+1

k=1

(2k − 1) = 2(n + 1) − 1 + n

2

.

The right hand side can now be rewritten as

nX

+1

k=1

(2k − 1) = [n + 1]2

.

Thus, we have proved that if the formula holds for n, it holds for n + 1. By the

principle of mathematical induction, the identity is true for all integers n ≥ 1.

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