Question

for the two sets A and B A∩B’ = Φ => A⊂B

Answer 1

yes because, Φ is an subset of every set.

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Answer 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Proof.

Let r € (A - B - C.

Then

r € (A- B) and r&C by definition of set difference. Further, x E A and

Thus, x € a and x € b also by definition of set difference.

B and r g C, which implies

(BorC). Hence,

r4(BUC) by definition of union.

Thus, given r e A we have r e A-(BUC) by definition of set difference.

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