for the two sets A and B A∩B’ = Φ => A⊂B
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yes because, Φ is an subset of every set.
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Step-by-step explanation:
Proof.
Let r € (A - B - C.
Then
r € (A- B) and r&C by definition of set difference. Further, x E A and
Thus, x € a and x € b also by definition of set difference.
B and r g C, which implies
(BorC). Hence,
r4(BUC) by definition of union.
Thus, given r e A we have r e A-(BUC) by definition of set difference.
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