Question

FREE 100 POINTS
maths ch1 pg1.22 Q25
plz explain in detail step by step​

Answer 1

Answer:

Ans is 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

that y=1 and

therefore dy/dx=0

but how is y=1

1/(1+a^n-m + a^p-m)=a^m/(a^m+a^n+a^p)

1/(1+a^m-n + a^p-n)=a^n/(a^m+a^n+a^p)

1/(1+a^m-p + a^n-p)=a^p/(a^m+a^n+a^p)

so, adding we get

y=(a^m+a^n+a^p)/(a^m+a^n+a^p)

or y=1

so dy/dx=0

Hope it helps you

Answer 2

Thanks for question !!

Before you understand this question first know about surds rule used in this problem to solve:-

1)

${a}^{m + n} = {a}^{m} \times {a}^{n}$

2)

${a}^{m - n} = \frac{ {a}^{m} }{ {a}^{n} }$

Refer to attachment please....