Social Sciences, asked by shihabaziya, 3 months ago

Gandhiji strongly believed that every adult in India should be given the right to vote.
However, a few people don’t share his views. They feel that illiterate people, who are
mainly poor, should not be given the right to vote. What do you think? Do you think
this would be a form of discrimination? Give five points to support your view.

Answers

Answered by hasikakama9
2

Answer:

All citizens are equal. The constitution aims at providing all equality to all its citizens. If a person believes in that illiterate people should not be given the right to vote then he is simply being a discriminator.

We have no right to discriminate any one on the basis of poverty.

An illiterate is also a citizen of India. He should not be debarred from voting right on the basis of his illiteracy.

Our constitution provides equal voting rights to all its citizens.

As ideal citizens we all have to abide by the constitutional provisions.

We must honour human dignity and legal provisions.

Answered by Anonymous
1

 \huge\orange {\boxed {\boxed {\mathtt {ANSWER }}}}

Yes,I think that by not giving right to vote for a person who is illiterate people(who are generally poor) is a kind of discrimination because;

-it would make poor people believe that they would never get the right to vote and the rich people would start to jive on them.

-it effect the developing of a democratic country.

Similar questions