Gapless anyons: are massless fermions not well-defined?
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It is usually said that anyon statistics are not well-defined if the anyons are massless. If I understand it correctly, the intuition is that any braiding has a finite duration, which means that any such process can always excite arbitarily low ω" modes role ruining the necessary assumption of adiabaticity.Surely the fermionic nature must have particular effects, even if 'finite-time braiding' is not terribly well-defined.
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It is usually said that anyon statistics are not well-defined if the anyons are massless. If I understand it correctly, the intuition is that any braiding has a finite duration, which means that any such process can always excite arbitarily low ωω-modes (if these exist, which is the case for gapless systems), ruining the necessary assumption of adiabaticity.
But what does that for example imply for a system of fermions with a Fermi surface? Are we not allowed to call the excitations 'fermions'?... [Or perhaps we can think even more fundamentally about the massless fermions in our universe.] Surely the fermionic nature must have particular effects, even if 'finite-time braiding' is not terribly well-defined.
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It is usually said that anyon statistics are not well-defined if the anyons are massless. If I understand it correctly, the intuition is that any braiding has a finite duration, which means that any such process can always excite arbitarily low ωω-modes (if these exist, which is the case for gapless systems), ruining the necessary assumption of adiabaticity.
But what does that for example imply for a system of fermions with a Fermi surface? Are we not allowed to call the excitations 'fermions'?... [Or perhaps we can think even more fundamentally about the massless fermions in our universe.] Surely the fermionic nature must have particular effects, even if 'finite-time braiding' is not terribly well-defined.
I hope its help you plzz mark me brainliest ans and follow me
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