Physics, asked by Anonymous, 5 months ago

guys please answer this question.

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Answered by sharmaseema2627

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Explanation:

Since the water quantity from both the holes are equal, we have

a1v1=a2v2

⇒L22gy=πR22g(4y)∵ velocity of efflux at depth h is given by v=2gh

⇒R=2πL

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