Math, asked by Anonymous, 3 months ago

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Answered by GK0786
1

Answer:

Given, cos(90-A)/sinA = sin(90-A)/cosA

Taking LHS :

cos(90-A)/sinA = sinA/sinA (because cos(90-©)=sin© )

= 1 ------------------(1)

Now, Taking RHS :

sin(90-A)/cosA = cosA/cosA (because sin(90-©)=cos© )

= 1 ----------------------(2)

So, from (1)&(2)

LHS = RHS Hence proved

Answered by Anonymous
2

Answer:

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