Math, asked by ShuchiRecites, 1 year ago

Heya, Question for you all

❎ No Spamming ❎

Prove it.

Have a Great Day Ahead!

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tejasri2: answer is one
ShuchiRecites: Yes dear
ShuchiRecites: You have to prove
tejasri2: but i know how to prove but due network problems i could not send a pic sorry i tried also
ShuchiRecites: You can type it
tejasri2: cant its too long
ShuchiRecites: Sis, determination is needed. Just type it sis
tejasri2: but i have no time sorry bro.

Answers

Answered by Shubhendu8898
2
Hi ....dear..
Here is your solution.
hope it helped you
Attachments:

ShuchiRecites: then plz
Shubhendu8898: when we take lcm ..it comes (a-c)(b-c)(a-b) ..bcz it is common in all three terms..
ShuchiRecites: Ok, and then numerator
Shubhendu8898: and for numerator divide denominator with lcm we get b-c for second we get minus of a-c and similar for second it comes a-b
ShuchiRecites: ok thanks
Shubhendu8898: as (a-c)(b-c)(a-b)/(a-c)(a-) = b-c
Shubhendu8898: and similarly for others
Shubhendu8898: Ur most welcome
ShuchiRecites: ok ☺
Shubhendu8898: yup!!!
Answered by googly24
3
Hey buddy That's your answer
Hope it helps .....So Please mark it as a brainliest answer
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