Math, asked by jayasaashu, 11 months ago

✌✌✌✌✌hi guys .

if f :N to N is defined as f(x) = x^2the images of 1 and 2 are ________ and__________.
give correct answer☠☠☠ don't waste my time by typing something else☠☠☠​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
2

Hie!!

Given Function is

F: N ➡️N

F(x) =

Here Domain , Range and codomain of this Function is set of natural numbers.

Elements belonging to the codomain are the mirror images of Elements belonging to the Domain.

F(x) =

For x = 1 we have it's image as

F(1) = 1²

F(1) = 1

For x = 2 , we have it's image as

F(2) = 2²

F(2) = 4

So, The images of 1 and 2 are 1 and 4 Respectively.

Pre image of 1 and 2 is

1 =

x = 1 OR x = -1

And

2 =

x = 2 OR x = -2

So, The pre image of 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 respectively.

Note:- -1 and -2 will be rejected becoz domain is set of Natural numbers.


jayasaashu: sorry one correction I don't need the image I need the(pre image) of 1 and 2
mnaik3224gmailcom: see my answer .....
Anonymous: Mate, it's not possible that 1 and 2 has pre image.
Anonymous: Sorry!!)). Done!)())
mnaik3224gmailcom: a girl see my answer
mnaik3224gmailcom: hey jayasaashu see my answer
Answered by mnaik3224gmailcom
0

If f:N to N be defined by f(x)= x².

Then "f" is an injection since for a1, a2€N and

f(a1) = f(a2) = a1²=a2² = (a1²-a2²) = 0

= (a1-a2) (a1+a2)= 0

=a1-a2=0 [:;a1,a2€N= a1+a2>0] = a1=a2.

#Mark as brilliant answer...


mnaik3224gmailcom: pls choose it as the Brilliant answer
mnaik3224gmailcom: see my answer....
jayasaashu: no
jayasaashu: it's not what I need
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