Question

How does the Transformation of an Operator Change a function of that Operator?

Answer 1

Say I have an operator o^o^, which I want to transform to o^′=M^−1o^M^o^′=M^−1o^M^. When I now consider a "function" f(o^)f(o^), its transformation is usualy expressed as f(o^′)=M^−1f(o^)M^f(o^′)=M^−1f(o^)M^.

My Question: Why can I express it that way? I'd have to make the critical assumption that I can express f(o^)f(o^) as a sum of products of o^o^, which means that I can expand ff as a taylor series. Is that true?

Answer 2

$\beta 0nj0u\pi$

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the answer is :-

$m0 + m0 + \gamma \gamma \: mo \: \times e \: yy$