Math, asked by coolrd25, 10 months ago

How the value of (sin 72)÷ (sin 36) is equal to √5+1÷2​

Answers

Answered by IamIronMan0
1

Answer:

First simplify

 \frac{ \sin(72) }{ \sin(36) }  =  \frac{2 \sin(36) \cos(36)  }{ \sin(36) }  = 2 \cos(36)  = 2 \cos( \frac{\pi}{5} )

all we need is cos π/5 .

And

 \cos( \frac{\pi}{5} )   =  \frac{ \sqrt{5} + 1 }{4}

It is well known result . Which also can derived taking x = π / 5 , or π = 5x

Take cos

 \cos(5x)  =  \cos(\pi)  \\observe \:  \:  cos4x =  -  \cos(x)  \\  \cos(5x)  =  \cos(x) ( - 2 \cos(2x)  + 2 \cos(4x)  + 1)

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